I mean Britannia spoke Celtic,Latin was for the educated masses in the middle and dark ages.This question is beyond me.English is supposedly a west Germanic language.I can reason that that the Mediterranean and other parts(Iberia,Germania,Romania) were part of the Roman Empire Proper and from what i gather, Latin wasn't enforced in Britain.So English in Latin alphabet seems puzzling to me.

So Is the Latin alphabet an adopted alphabet for English?(Turkish,Romanian,Azeri are some examples)

Or am I totally incorrect and the truth is something else.

If latin is the language of ancient rome, then should we start calling Italians latinos and latinas? they are the real latin people? If not, then the romace laguages are spoken in several different countries besides south america including north Africa, france, and romania and so on... Why arn't the people from these countries considered latina or latino? I think this world is confused. Please help.

If latin is the language of ancient rome, then should we start calling Italians latinos and latinas? they are the real latin people? If not, then the romace laguages are spoken in several different countries besides south america including north Africa, france, and romania and so on... Why arn't the people from these countries considered latina or latino? I think this world is confused. Please help.