How did the English language adopt the Latin alphabet?

Saturday, March 3rd, 2012 at 6:57 pm  
Comments (4)

I mean Britannia spoke Celtic,Latin was for the educated masses in the middle and dark ages.This question is beyond me.English is supposedly a west Germanic language.I can reason that that the Mediterranean and other parts(Iberia,Germania,Romania) were part of the Roman Empire Proper and from what i gather, Latin wasn't enforced in Britain.So English in Latin alphabet seems puzzling to me.

So Is the Latin alphabet an adopted alphabet for English?(Turkish,Romanian,Azeri are some examples)

Or am I totally incorrect and the truth is something else.

Since when did the Latin language become a race?

Thursday, October 21st, 2010 at 7:00 pm  
Comments (8)

How can people who don't speak Latin claim to have the Roman Empire's language (Latin) in their blood?
If it's about the Spanish race, then why not just say European or Spaniard?

Since when did the Latin language become a race?

Wednesday, September 2nd, 2009 at 1:33 pm  
Comments (6)

How can people who don't speak Latin claim to have the Roman Empire's language (Latin) in their blood?
If it's about the Spanish race, then why not just say European or Spaniard?

Why people in Byzantine Empire did not speak Latin?

Tuesday, August 18th, 2009 at 5:12 pm  
Comments (3)

Byzantine Empire was said to be the legacy of the Roman Empire but why the people did not continue to speak Latin but instead spoke Greek? Was it because they moved to the modern Turkey, which is near to Greece.